From: Randall Buth (ButhFam@compuserve.com)
Date: Thu Apr 26 2001 - 16:01:30 EDT
I'll take up the following with a couple of points frequently overlooked:
>I am interested in any information on the following: are there textual and
>lexigraphical clues in the Greek NT which lend credence to the view that
>Christ sometimes, often, or always spoke Hebrew in His minstry? Thanks.
>Matthew R. Miller [added cwc]
In the blessings in the synoptic Gospels it ususally says "he blessed" and
NEVER quotes the words.
The implication is that Jesus was using the standard blessings.
This is partially confirmed by phrases like "fruit of the vine" in the last
supper, and the generic use of "bread" at the last supper.
Well, if you can figure out what the common first century blessings were,
you will at least have figured out what Jesus said "sometimes".
The same argument applies to "unexplained idioms" like 'binding and
loosing'. If the words are used without a context that would otherwise
define them, then they are reflecting the "common understanding" and again,
Jesus and the gospel sources (at least) assume that people would understand
what was meant. So what did 'bind and loose' mean in the first century? Who
was using such idioms, and what is the evidence?
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