From: Jack Kilmon (email@example.com)
Date: Thu Apr 26 2001 - 18:07:59 EDT
----- Original Message -----
From: "Dave Washburn" <firstname.lastname@example.org>
To: "Biblical Greek" <email@example.com>
Sent: Thursday, April 26, 2001 11:40 AM
Subject: [b-greek] Re: Original NT in Greek?
> > Hi!
> > Thanks for the information about Matthew 16:18, and quickly (before
> > this whole discussion gets cancelled) what is the other 'word play'
> > somewhere in John 21?
> The other one is an extended one in the conversation between
> Jesus and Peter, where Jesus uses AGAPAW for "do you love
> me?" and Peter replies with FILEW instead. The interplay has to
> do with the nuances of these two words, since the former means
> "do you love me enough to die for me?" while the latter means "I
> like you a lot." I'd be interested to know what the Aramaic (or
> Hebrew) words are that could have been used for this subtle
The big difference between Greek and Aramaic is that Greek is a language of
and has a number of words for one meaning. Aramaic is a more..uh...thrifty
that has several meanings for one word. The Aramaic rxm (racham) can have
the meaning of agaph and filew. The LXX uses agaph for the Hebrew )hbh
Canticles 2:4, 5, 7 and elsewhere...which can also mean either affection or
I believe the agapaw/filew play is a device of the evangelist and not to the
It's purpose may be involved in Yohannine polemic to Peter and to bracket
the thrice denial with the thrice "hesitant" affirmation.
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