[b-greek] Re: Original NT in Greek?

From: Jack Kilmon (jkilmon@historian.net)
Date: Thu Apr 26 2001 - 18:07:59 EDT

----- Original Message -----
From: "Dave Washburn" <dwashbur@nyx.net>
To: "Biblical Greek" <b-greek@franklin.oit.unc.edu>
Sent: Thursday, April 26, 2001 11:40 AM
Subject: [b-greek] Re: Original NT in Greek?

> > Hi!
> > Thanks for the information about Matthew 16:18, and quickly (before
> > this whole discussion gets cancelled) what is the other 'word play'
> > somewhere in John 21?
> Keith,
> The other one is an extended one in the conversation between
> Jesus and Peter, where Jesus uses AGAPAW for "do you love
> me?" and Peter replies with FILEW instead. The interplay has to
> do with the nuances of these two words, since the former means
> "do you love me enough to die for me?" while the latter means "I
> like you a lot." I'd be interested to know what the Aramaic (or
> Hebrew) words are that could have been used for this subtle
> exchange.

The big difference between Greek and Aramaic is that Greek is a language of
and has a number of words for one meaning. Aramaic is a more..uh...thrifty
that has several meanings for one word. The Aramaic rxm (racham) can have
the meaning of agaph and filew. The LXX uses agaph for the Hebrew )hbh
(ahabah) in
Canticles 2:4, 5, 7 and elsewhere...which can also mean either affection or

I believe the agapaw/filew play is a device of the evangelist and not to the
It's purpose may be involved in Yohannine polemic to Peter and to bracket
the thrice denial with the thrice "hesitant" affirmation.


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