[b-greek] RE: Christ's Parlance

From: Randall Buth (ButhFam@compuserve.com)
Date: Sat Apr 28 2001 - 15:01:12 EDT

EGRAYEN Iver Larsen
> (IL)
>Is there evidence that helps us to determine whether the Greek words
hEBRAIS as used by
>Luke in Acts and hEBRAISTI as used by John in the Gospel and Revelation
refer to Hebrew or
>Aramaic or any of the two?

All explicit examples of Greek EBRAISTI allegedly referring to Aramaic
words are either truly
Hebrew words (e.g., rabbounei) and thus correct,
or else refer to placenames.

>In the LXX SURISTI seems to be the Greek word for Aramaic. Had that
changed by the time of

Correct. SURISTI means "in Aramaic".
And No, it hadn't changed. It even entered Mishnaic Hebrew as a loanword:

>I noticed that NIV has translated it by Aramaic in John's gospel and as
Hebrew in
>Revelation. I am not aware of the rationale for this.

Most NT scholarship assumes that Hebrew wouldn't or couldn't have been
therefore it must mean Aramaic,
though there is a growing questioning of simplistic "two-language"
MIshnaic Hebrew scholars hardly pay attention to such views (functional
Greek, Aramaic, but no Hebrew) today.

Randall Buth

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