From: Michael Tolbert (firstname.lastname@example.org)
Date: Sat May 05 2001 - 22:21:26 EDT
Hi there, I am new here but I'd like to pose a question. There's
something I don't understand about this name "Iesous." If it is supposed
to be a transliteration of any of the 3 names mentioned in the Subject of
my message, why is there not an "a" type sound toward the end of this
transliteration? Why isn't it "Iesouas" or "Iesuas"? I somewhat
understand adding the s to conform it to masculine Greek names (though I
don't think this was a universal thing, look at Jesse, his name is not
altered by adding an s to it), but where did the "a" sound go in
Yehoshua/Joshua/Yeshua? Also, is the "ou" in "Iesous" something optional?
Could it just as easily be a "u"? I just don't understand why this
couldn't be translated as "Iasua" or "Iasuas"? Why is the heta needed as
the 2nd letter if Jesus' name supposedly came from the name Yehoshua? The
name Jeshua has the "aye" sound according to Strong's, but Yehoshua
doesn't, and Jesus' name supposedly came from Yehoshua not Jeshua, right
or wrong? I mean in the NT we have "Joshua" being translated as "Iesous",
how is that an accurate transliteration?
I do not mean to offend anyone but if I could get some scholarly feedback
I'd greatly appreciate it. Thanks.
I have added the name at the end since some mail programs do not show the "from" part of the heading and our FAQ requires a full name signature at the end of the post. It would be nice to have some indication of where a person is from and/or one's institution.
Also let us not get back into a discussion of the name "Jehovah."
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