From: Jim Crouch (email@example.com)
Date: Wed May 09 2001 - 15:44:23 EDT
I recently joined b-greek and have spent the better part of the day
reading several interesting threads. I look forward to the promise of
stimulating exchanges re: the biblical text and exegesis.
I know that 1 Timothy 2:12 has been the source of many conversations. My
question straightforward and text-based.
Can the word "man" (genitive, ANDROS, object of the infinitve AUQENTEIN)
also be the object of the infinitive "DIDASKEIN?" The basis for the
question is the fact that when two verbs have a common object, the case of
the object is generally governed by the nearer of the verbs (or
infinitives, in this case).
Thank you for your consideration.
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