From: Carl W. Conrad (email@example.com)
Date: Wed May 09 2001 - 19:53:32 EDT
At 3:44 PM -0400 5/9/01, Jim Crouch wrote:
>I recently joined b-greek and have spent the better part of the day
>reading several interesting threads. I look forward to the promise of
>stimulating exchanges re: the biblical text and exegesis.
>I know that 1 Timothy 2:12 has been the source of many conversations. My
>question straightforward and text-based.
>Can the word "man" (genitive, ANDROS, object of the infinitve AUQENTEIN)
>also be the object of the infinitive "DIDASKEIN?" The basis for the
>question is the fact that when two verbs have a common object, the case of
>the object is generally governed by the nearer of the verbs (or
>infinitives, in this case).
>Thank you for your consideration.
This is a question that gets raised, it seems two or three times each year
and it is one that tends to be very contentious. Let me note that the most
recent lengthy discussion of it was held August 11-14 of 2000 and the
archives are open to examination by anyone; it was a lengthy and
contentious thread and one that was ultimately closed because it had become
contentious. I urge those interested in this question to consult the
archives before renewing this discussion. I do believe that you will find
most points of view on that question discussed in that thread. A more
recent discussion this year (February 18-19, 2001) narrowed the focus to
the function of OUDE in this verse.
Carl W. Conrad
Co-Chair, B-Greek List
Department of Classics, Washington University
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