[b-greek] Why MOICOS?

From: William Hale Boyd (wmhboyd@aol.com)
Date: Thu May 03 2001 - 17:16:15 EDT

I have limited sources, but those I do have (Thayers, Vines & such like)
tell me that MOICOS is intercourse with another man's wife. Why then did
Jesus say, "Whoever marries a divorced woman MOICATAI?" If she is
divorced, then how is she another man's wife? and if she is NOT another
man's wife, then how is this MOICOS? So far my conclusion is that the
sources I consulted have not recgonized the use Jesus made of the word
"MOICOS" in Matthew 5:32 and Matthew 19:9. Are there lexicons (sources)
that do? Is MOICOS always intercourse with another's spouse?

Another question: (along the same line)

I heard a story about an old Greek that borded up his unwed daughter in a
house with a horse until she died because she was guilty of MOICOS. If
she was unwed, how was this MOICOS? Could the MOICOS have been the
violation of the trust (or legal obligation) she had to her father to
remain a virgin until until her marriage? Does someone know the source
for this story?


William Boyd
Little Rock

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