[b-greek] Re: Grammars, Who Needs them?

From: Joseph A. Weaks (j.weaks@student.tcu.edu)
Date: Sat May 19 2001 - 13:40:20 EDT

>OK, here is an example. I always get asked for an example.
>Mark 14:23 reads:

Your example is a poor one. Cases determined by a preposition are
the most obvious instances where the syntax determines case, and not
a particular semantic nuance. I have read the grammar by the "Texas
guy" you mentioned (being a Texas guy myself), assuming you mean
Wallace, and it is what it is. It is a way-over-the-top laying out
phenomenologically of case uses, tense uses, etc. And while it would
be a poor backbone for understanding how the language works, it is
Me thinks you protest too much.
Cases are often used by Greek writers to accomplish differing
semantic functions, in addition to syntactical functions. There's no
way around that. It doesn't mean that the phrasal level context is
unimportant. The genetive, dative and accussative of time are a
perfect example of distinct semantic funtions. (I assume I need not
cite examples since you have the grammars on your shelf.)
If you are arguing that Greek writers did not sometimes choose cases
(or tenses or whatever) for particular semantic functions, then you
are wrong, IMHO. (And I would suppose you are overstating your
argument for the sake of making a point.)
If you are arguing something else, then I missed your point.

Joe Seminarian :)

Rev. Joseph A. Weaks
Pastor, Bethany Christian Church, Dallas
Ph.D. Student, Brite Divinity School

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