From: Harry W. Jones (firstname.lastname@example.org)
Date: Sun Jun 03 2001 - 20:29:27 EDT
> I would like to make the argument that one can make a unique distinction in
> the Greek depending on whether one places hOUTOS before or after a noun.
> Thus, in referring to a man in one's immediate physical presence, one would
> say, hOUTOS hO ANQRWPOS. To refer to a man possessing certain
> characteristics previously described, but who would not necessarily be in
> one's immediate presence, one would say, hO ANQRWPOS hOUTOS.
> I found 21 verses having the phrase OUTOS hO (noun), that include the
> Luke 14:30 LEGONTES hOTI hOUTOS hO ANWRWPOS HRXATO OIKODOMEIN KAI OUK
> ISCUSEN EKTELESAI
> Luke 15:24 hOTI hOUTOS hO hUIOS MOU NEKROS HN...
> John 7:46 APEKRIQHSAN hOI hUPHRETAI OUDEPOTE OUTWS ELALHSEN ANQRWPOS WS
> OUTOS hO ANQRWPOS (one variant)
> In each case, hOUTOS hO (noun) seems to refer to a person in one's immediate
> presence. I am not sure that I could support my argument as strongly using
> all the other verses having the phrase hOUTOS hO (noun) although I think that
> the verses tend to agree with my argument.
> I would then like to draw the conclusion that hH GENEA hAUTH in Matthew 24:34
> and elsewhere should be taken to refer only to a generation having
> characteristics described in the preceding context and should not be
> understood to mean those to whom Christ was speaking, i.e., those in his
> immediate presence, unless they also exhibited the specified characteristics.
> Would it be legitimate for me to argue that the difference between "hOUTOS hO
> (noun)" and "hO (noun) OUTOS" is as I have hypothesized above?
> Roger Hutchinson
The demonstrative pronoun "hOUTOS" indicates near presence whereas the
demonstrative pronoun "EKEINOS" indicates remoteness. So this idea
is already covered in NT Greek. This is all mentioned in my
Paul L. Kaufman NT grammer. Man do I love that book!
Harry W. Jones"
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