From: Jason Hare (firstname.lastname@example.org)
Date: Mon Jun 18 2001 - 22:50:43 EDT
I am reading through Revelation. You can track with
me at my new website:
http://www.angelfire.com/mo3/greekrevelation . On
that website, I am typing out the chapter text and
recording myself reading them. I have finished with
that up to chapter two, but will continue to do so. I
will also be adding commentary, focusing mainly on
highlighting divergences between the main
interpretations and offering my own in a few areas,
paying special attention to the verses that encourage
people not to give up.
My question for you right now is: What significance is
there in the fact that John wrote in verse four: "APO
hO WN KAI hO HN KAI hO ERCAMENOS"? Why did he not use
the genitive: APO TOU ONTOS... KTL?
Beyond that, it seems that John was bad with
agreement, also. He says in verse five: "KAI APO
IHSOU CRISTOU, hO MARTUS, hO PISTOS, hO PRWTOTOKOS TWN
NEKRWN KAI O ARCWN TWN BASILEWN THS GHS." It is
interesting (if not an error) that he uses the
genitive for "Jesus Christ" and the nominative for
"the witness, the faithful one, the first-born of the
dead... KTL." Is this non-agreement bad grammar,
period? Or is there a reason for it?
Please, carbon-copy all responses to my e-mail
address, since I do not have time to get the digest or
individual posts (I have been working on other things
very hard). I appreciate you all, even though it has
been so long since I have sent anything to this
listserv. Thanks for your help.
Jason A. Hare
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