[b-greek] Re: Sharp's rule

From: Jason A. Hare (language_lover64801@yahoo.com)
Date: Fri Jun 22 2001 - 01:14:32 EDT


I think that inductive arguments like this are strengthened by one thing:
statistics. If you read Wallace's grammar, he has a section called
"Validity of the Rule Within the New Testament" (pp.273-277). He states
that there are *eighty* different undisputed examples of Sharp's Rule.
Besides these, there are the "christologically significant" passages. In
footnote 50 on page 273, he quotes C. Kuehne who stated that "we have seen
that in the New Testament there are no exceptions at all to the rule" when
all of its corollaries are considered.

That is reasonable enough evidence for it to be considered a rule of Greek
grammar, even if it is inductive.


> To all,
> Since sharp's rule is based purely on inductive reasoning, I don't see
> how it could be considered as a rule or completely reliable.
> Harry W. Jones
> hjbluebird@aol.com

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