[b-greek] Re: Sharp's rule

From: Harry W. Jones (hjbluebird@aol.com)
Date: Fri Jun 22 2001 - 01:33:27 EDT

> Hmm, I don't think I understand *your* reasoning here, Harry <g> but I would
> like to
> What kind of reasoning would you consider to be more reliable than inductive
> reasoning in indicating whether or not Sharp's Rule is a "real" rule of
> Greek or not?
> Wayne
> ---
> Wayne Leman
> ---
> Wayne Leman
> Bible translation site: http://www.geocities.com/bible_translation/
> > To all,
> >
> > Since sharp's rule is based purely on inductive reasoning, I don't see
> > how it could be considered as a rule or completely reliable.
> >
> > Harry W. Jones


As I understand it, Sharp developed his rule by finding all the
instances in which the construction <article> <Noun> kai <Noun> lead
to the conclusion that <Noun> = <Noun>. And that seems to me to be
like saying, since every construction in the NT, except one, of
<Truely I say to you> has a comma after it then all such constructions
must have a comma after them. In other words, it's a rule based more
on statistics than the axioms of the NT Greek grammar.

Harry W. Jones

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