[b-greek] Re: Sharp's rule

From: Harry W. Jones (hjbluebird@aol.com)
Date: Fri Jun 22 2001 - 01:52:48 EDT

> Harry,
> I think that inductive arguments like this are strengthened by one thing:
> statistics. If you read Wallace's grammar, he has a section called
> "Validity of the Rule Within the New Testament" (pp.273-277). He states
> that there are *eighty* different undisputed examples of Sharp's Rule.
> Besides these, there are the "christologically significant" passages. In
> footnote 50 on page 273, he quotes C. Kuehne who stated that "we have seen
> that in the New Testament there are no exceptions at all to the rule" when
> all of its corollaries are considered.
> That is reasonable enough evidence for it to be considered a rule of Greek
> grammar, even if it is inductive.
> Regards,
> Jason
> > To all,
> >
> > Since sharp's rule is based purely on inductive reasoning, I don't see
> > how it could be considered as a rule or completely reliable.
> >
> > Harry W. Jones
> > hjbluebird@aol.com


 I know that Wallace has been trying to resurrect Sharp's rule but
I really think he ought to give up on kicking a dead horse.

Harry W. Jones

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