[b-greek] Hebrews 1:2

From: Wayne Leman (Wayne_Leman@SIL.ORG)
Date: Tue Jun 26 2001 - 18:56:09 EDT

> Grammatically speaking, is there any real indication as to whether "these
> days" refers to the days in which the Hebrew writer lived or whether it is
> referring the the times when God spoke to the fathers?
> Roby Ellis

Roby, yours is a reasonable question, since there are times when we cannot
tell for sure whether a Greek phrase syntactically connects to what precedes
or what follows. In this case, since the preceding sentence (verse 1)
already has its time adverb PALAI near its beginning, it would seem more
reasonable to me that the phrase you are wondering about would set a
different time, namely, the time for the statement of verse 2. This would
also result in parallelism of sentence-initial position of the time setting
for both sentences, which would highlight a contrast of two different times
which is quite possibly in focus here.

Wayne Leman
Bible translation site: http://www.geocities.com/bible_translation/

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