[b-greek] Re: Hebrews 1:2

From: Harold R. Holmyard III (hholmyard@ont.com)
Date: Tue Jun 26 2001 - 22:28:47 EDT

Dear Roby,

You write:


>Grammatically speaking, is there any real indication as to whether "these
>days" refers to the days in which the Hebrew writer lived or whether it is
>referring the the times when God spoke to the fathers?

HH: It seems that the contrast is between PALAI and EP ESCATOU TWN hHMERWN
TOUTWN. This follows from the fact that in the earlier period God spoke
through prophets, while in the latter period He spoke through His Son.
Also, formerly He spoke to the fathers, and lately He spoke to "us." So the
contrast works at several points to contrast one era with another.

                                Harold Holmyard
                                Dallas, TX

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