From: B. Perryman (firstname.lastname@example.org)
Date: Sun Aug 12 2001 - 12:12:18 EDT
I'm looking for a literal translation of 1 John 1:9.
I'd like to know how the grammar impacts the translation of this text.
Lately, teachings have been becoming popular that says that we do not need
to confess our sins, because we confess them at the point of conversion,
that we already received forgiveness (this I do believe) and that we were
cleansed from unrighteousnes when we were saved and do not need to be
cleansed any more. It seems like the belief is based on the completeness
of our salvation based on Christ complete work on the cross. This I
believe. I also believe, though that the confession is the way that God
has chosen to deal with sins after salvation. I have also heard it
expressed that we have no sin because we are not under the law. I believe
that we are not under the law, but the truth is that believers do sin.
I've looked over & looked over the passage. I believe that we do need to
confess and I believe that we are cleansed from unrighteousness (the
unrighteousness that accumulates when we have unconfessed sins in our
lives). I like to know how the Greek translation impacts the
understanding of this passage.
I don't know Greek and any help you can give will be appreciated
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