From: Carl W. Conrad (firstname.lastname@example.org)
Date: Sun Aug 12 2001 - 14:19:03 EDT
At 12:12 PM -0400 8/12/01, B. Perryman wrote:
>I'm looking for a literal translation of 1 John 1:9.
>I'd like to know how the grammar impacts the translation of this text.
>Lately, teachings have been becoming popular that says that we do not need
>to confess our sins, because we confess them at the point of conversion,
>that we already received forgiveness (this I do believe) and that we were
>cleansed from unrighteousnes when we were saved and do not need to be
>cleansed any more. It seems like the belief is based on the completeness
>of our salvation based on Christ complete work on the cross. This I
>believe. I also believe, though that the confession is the way that God
>has chosen to deal with sins after salvation. I have also heard it
>expressed that we have no sin because we are not under the law. I believe
>that we are not under the law, but the truth is that believers do sin.
>I've looked over & looked over the passage. I believe that we do need to
>confess and I believe that we are cleansed from unrighteousness (the
>unrighteousness that accumulates when we have unconfessed sins in our
>lives). I like to know how the Greek translation impacts the
>understanding of this passage.
>I don't know Greek and any help you can give will be appreciated
>Please respond by email. email@example.com
List-members will please restrict ON-LIST responses to what the Greek text
of 1 John 1:9 may legitimately be understood to mean; address any
discussion of theological implications directly and off-list to Mr.
Perryman, as he has suggested.
Carl W. Conrad
Co-Chair, B-Greek List
Department of Classics, Washington University (Emeritus)
firstname.lastname@example.org OR email@example.com
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