From: Wayne Leman (email@example.com)
Date: Sat Sep 22 2001 - 22:29:09 EDT
Mark, it seems to me that the matter can also be turned around this way:
Unless the immediate context determines otherwise, PANTAS ANQRWPOUS is to be
understood to mean "everyone" (where the context is inclusive of both
females and males) or "all men" (where only men are referred to).
I personally find nothing in the context of 1 Tim. 2:4 to indicate that the
lexical meaning of PANTAS ANQRWPOUS is anything other than "everyone". For
those who believe in limited atonement (or other limitations on PANTAS
here), there is still the hermeneutical out here in the verb QELEI, if we
allow for the philosophical distinction between what God desires to happen
and what he causes to happen.
One further thought: I don't think I have yet heard in this thread the fact
that in a number of passages in the NT, PANTAS is hyperbolic, e.g.
Matt. 2:3 PASA hIEROSOLUMA
Mark 1:5 PASA hH IOUDDIA XWRA KAI hOI hEROSOLUMITAI PANTES
Mark 1:37 PANTES ZHTOUSIN SE
I see no exegetical, contextual hint of hyperbole in 1 Tim. 2:4, howerver,
but we should *always, at all times* <g> be alert to the possibility of
hyperbole with PANTAS.
Bible translation website: http://www.geocities.com/bible_translation
> What about PANTAS ANQRWPOUS in 1 Cor. 7:7 and PANTAS in 1 Cor 14:5.
> "all" in context refer to a "particular group" of peolple? I think this is
> what Harry was meaning by a sub group. Perhaps a better question is: who
> PANTAS ANQRWPOUS in 1 Tim. 2:4? The question of the ages!Unless it is
> revealed in the immediate context it is open for hermenutics and not just
> Greek translation. What do all of you (sub group B-Greek list members)
> Mark Markham
> Heidelberg, Germany
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