[b-greek] Re: 1 John 2:22

From: Steven R. Lo Vullo (doulos@appleisp.net)
Date: Sat Sep 22 2001 - 16:41:07 EDT

on 9/22/01 10:51 AM, Suedaleg@aol.com at Suedaleg@aol.com wrote:

> Ken asked about this verse: TIS ESTIN (O PSEUSTHS EI MH (O ARNOUMENOS (OTI
> Steve's response: ARNEOMAI ("to deny"), as a verb of speaking, has the hOTI
> clause is its
> direct object expressing an indirect statement. Thus the hOTI clause
> indirectly expresses the denial itself. The OUK is retained from the direct
> statement reflected in the indirect statement. The OUK must be retained or
> the indirect statement would reflect the opposite of what was intended by
> the direct statement, since the direct statement is IHSOUS OUK ESTIN hO
> CRISTOS. Without the OUK the direct statement would have been IHSOUS ESTIN
> hO CRISTOS, which was not what the writer's opponents were saying. In
> English, since ARNEOMAI already expresses a negation, we cannot translate
> both it and the negative particle OUK. This is why NASB renders as it does
> (cf. also KJV, ASV, NAB, NIV, NAS95, RSV, NRSV). Other translations reflect
> the OUK, but translate ARNEOMAI with a more generic word for speaking, such
> as "claims" (NJB) or "says" (NLT).
> So my understanding here might translate it: ". . . he who denies, [saying]
> 'Jesus is not the Christ.' " Is my understanding clear on this type of
> construction?

Though the clause in question is more naturally taken as indirect discourse,
we may, for illustrative purposes, translate ARNEOMAI slightly differently
and turn the hOTI clause into direct discourse. Thus we would have: "The one
who makes the denial, 'Jesus is not the Christ.'" This is similar to what
you have done above. This becomes a little more clumsy when translating as
indirect discoure: "The one who makes the denial that Jesus is not the
Christ." So I think it is best to translate in English as indirect
discourse, leaving the OUK untranslated, since ARNEOMAI already expresses a
denial. But I think you have the idea.

Steve Lo Vullo
Madison, WI

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