From: Harry W. Jones (email@example.com)
Date: Sun Oct 28 2001 - 06:48:16 EST
Of course, I'm no Greek scholar by any means but all the
basic books that I have on NT Greek indicate that
present participles are durative. Of course I understand
that there is a temporal type of durative in which the
action may only last for a limited time and an atemporal
type of durative whose action may last indefinitely.
Of course my textbooks on present tense verbs indicate
that their aspect is either continuous or undefined.
And of course, I know that Wallace classifies the present
tenses more completely starting on page 514 of his book.
But I'm not aware that the present tense aspects of present
tense verbs indicated in Wallaces book would apply to
present participle. In other words, I understand all
present participles(Mounce says in BBG that they shouldn't
be called "present" but "continuous" participles) to be
continuous or durative.
That's why it seems to me,and I'm only a humble student of
NT Greek, that unless the context limits a present particle
to a temporal force that it would be atemporal. And since I
don't see and any such limiting factor in John 6:40, it seems to
me that the present participles hO QEWRWN and PISTEUWN in
John 6:40 would be atemporal.
Of course, I welcome all comments about it.
Best Regards to All,
B-Greek home page: http://metalab.unc.edu/bgreek
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