From: Iver Larsen (email@example.com)
Date: Wed Nov 14 2001 - 05:58:53 EST
Rick Duggin said:
> I was taught that there are three ways in which Greek and Latin
> writers emphasize a word:
> 1. Put it at the beginning of a sentence or clause.
> 2. Put it at the end of a sentence or clause.
> 3. Insert modifiers between the adjective (or article in Greek) and
> its noun.
> If a Greek writer shows emphasis by separating the noun from its
> would he show MORE emphasis by increasing the number of modifiers?
> E.g., "...THE outward of arranging the hair, and of wearing gold, or of
> putting on of apparel ADORNMENT."
> Surely this extended separation of article and noun gives greater
> emphasis than hO KRUPTOS THS KARDIAS ANQRWPOS in verse 4; or am I
> totally off the wall?
> Thanks in advance for your comments.
Let me offer my personal view which may be controversial.
I think you are pretty much off the wall, but blame it to your teachers.
Point 1) above is correct but needs to be used with care. It also applies to
the beginning of a phrase, but there are many factors involved, such as word
class, semantic content of verb, verb forms, author style, potential for
word order alterations etc.
Point 2) is advocated by some, but I am fairly confident that it does not
apply to Greek. It applies to English and it works in English because we do
not have the same free word order as in Greek.
Point 3) makes little sense as it is stated. What it tries to do is to
address the case when a modifier that might as well follow the head of the
noun phrase precedes the head. But it addresses the question without
understanding what is going on, and therefore needs to be stated
differently. Point 3) is an sub-point under the general principle of point
1) after point 1) has been expanded to include "or phrase".
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