[b-greek] Re: SU as part of a vocative?

From: Carl W. Conrad (cwconrad@artsci.wustl.edu)
Date: Tue Nov 27 2001 - 18:20:02 EST

At 8:23 PM +0100 11/27/01, Ulrik Petersen wrote:
>Dear list,
>I have a query regarding whether a SU can be part of a vocative
>phrase. Consider 1 Corinthians 15:36:
>My question is: Could SU be a part of a "vocative phrase", "AFRWN SU", or
>would this not be a possibility? The way I see it, there are two options:
>1) Either SU is part of a vocative phrase, "AFRWN SU", or
>2) SU is the overt subject of the "relative clause" SU hO SPEIREIS.
>However, I am studying a linguistic theory at the moment, Role and
>Reference Grammar. This theory seems to insist that SU be read as part of
>a vocative phrase, "AFRWN SU", rather than being the subject of the
>relative clause. But what do B-Greekers say? Is the vocative reading a
>possibility? Which would be the more natural reading? Are there any other
>I would be glad to explain to the list why the theory insists on the
>vocative analysis, so please ask if you are interested.

As it appears in UBS4, hO in hO SPEIREIS is a neuter nominative relative
pronoun, and the sentence is punctuated AFRWN, SU hO SPEIREIS, OU
ZWiOPOIEITAI EAN MH APOQANHi; the editors appeared to understand AFRWN as
vocative and SU as subject of hO SPEIREIS. I must say, however, that it
makes more sense to me to read AFRWN SU as a single vocative unit; why
emphasize SU as the subject of the relative clause: "What YOU sow doesn't
come to life unless it has died." I don't understand any particular
emphasis in the SU and yet I can't see why the SU would be explicitly
stated EXCEPT for emphasis. I'd rather understand this as, "You fool, what
you are sowing doesn't come to life unless it has (first) died."

Carl W. Conrad
Department of Classics, Washington University (Emeritus)
Most months: 1647 Grindstaff Road/Burnsville, NC 28714/(828) 675-4243
cwconrad@artsci.wustl.edu OR cwconrad@ioa.com
WWW: http://www.artsci.wustl.edu/~cwconrad/

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