Date: Tue Nov 27 2001 - 20:25:12 EST
In a message dated 11/27/01 4:46:08 PM, email@example.com writes:
>At 3:23 PM -0600 11/27/01, Paul S Dixon wrote:
>>Isn't it rather curious that translators omit the definite article here
>>and render it as though the construction were anarthrous? Does anybody
>>know of a translation yielding "the sinner," rather than "a sinner"?
>>But, more to the point. What is the justification for such?
>hO QEOS, hILASQHTI MOI TWi hAMARTWLWi
>Does this really signify anything more in the Greek than making hARTWLWi
>attributive to MOI? I don't think the translators are doing anything more
>than expressing the sense of the Greek in idiomatic English. While I can
>conceive of hILASQHTI MOI hAMARTWLWi ONTI, I can't quite imagine hILASQHTI
Several grammars with which I am familiar deal with the article as used in
Luke 18:13 as the article used to denote a class. egs. AXIOS hO ERGATHS TOU
MISQOU AUTOU. Lk. 10:7 "A worker is worthy of his wage." The article is used
with a noun that denotes a group of which the prayer is a member. I know of
no translation that translates either of these with the English article.
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