From: Paul S Dixon (email@example.com)
Date: Wed Nov 28 2001 - 17:34:23 EST
On Wed, 28 Nov 2001 15:49:02 -0600 "Carl W. Conrad"
> At 3:07 PM -0600 11/28/01, Paul S Dixon wrote:
> >Aren't there plenty of examples of appositional nouns in the Koine
> > If so, then why should we not expect MOI hAMARTWLWi, if he
> intended to
> >say, "to me, a sinner"?
> >How could he have said it in the Greek, if he wanted to say, "to
> me, the
> No doubt it WOULD be MOI TWi hAMARTWLWi, Paul. But the problem is
> not with
> the Greek so much as with the English; the Greek uses the article to
> to hAMARTWLOS as a class. No doubt you can put it into English as
> "to me,
> the sinner"--and Steve LoVullo has shown that some versions do just
> But the point I thought you were making was that it's wrong to
> translate it
> WITHOUT using the English definite article, and I think that's
> the Greek in terms of English grammar.
I confess I have reservations about translating a Greek articular
predicate noun without the English definite article. Is there any
evidence that Greek articular nouns denote anything but definiteness? If
no, then I question the translation "a sinner" of TWi hAMARTWLWi.
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