From: Carl W. Conrad (email@example.com)
Date: Wed Nov 28 2001 - 16:49:02 EST
At 3:07 PM -0600 11/28/01, Paul S Dixon wrote:
>On Tue, 27 Nov 2001 16:53:43 -0600 "Carl W. Conrad"
>> At 3:23 PM -0600 11/27/01, Paul S Dixon wrote:
>> >But, more to the point. What is the justification for such?
>> hO QEOS, hILASQHTI MOI TWi hAMARTWLWi
>> Does this really signify anything more in the Greek than making
>> hARTWLWi an
>> attributive to MOI? I don't think the translators are doing anything
>> than expressing the sense of the Greek in idiomatic English. While I
>> conceive of hILASQHTI MOI hAMARTWLWi ONTI, I can't quite imagine
>> MOI hAMARTWLWi.
>Aren't there plenty of examples of appositional nouns in the Koine Greek?
> If so, then why should we not expect MOI hAMARTWLWi, if he intended to
>say, "to me, a sinner"?
>How could he have said it in the Greek, if he wanted to say, "to me, the
No doubt it WOULD be MOI TWi hAMARTWLWi, Paul. But the problem is not with
the Greek so much as with the English; the Greek uses the article to refer
to hAMARTWLOS as a class. No doubt you can put it into English as "to me,
the sinner"--and Steve LoVullo has shown that some versions do just that.
But the point I thought you were making was that it's wrong to translate it
WITHOUT using the English definite article, and I think that's interpreting
the Greek in terms of English grammar.
Carl W. Conrad
Department of Classics, Washington University (Emeritus)
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