[b-greek] Re: John 9.41

From: Steven Lo Vullo (doulos@merr.com)
Date: Fri Dec 28 2001 - 21:28:30 EST


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On Friday, December 28, 2001, at 05:17 PM, Mark Hilditch wrote:

> Why would MENEI not be present tense?

Hi Mark:

It's not so much that it *wouldn't* be present tense as that MENEI
itself, without accent, could be present or future. With an acute on the
penult, it is present active (cf. John 1.39); with a circumflex on the
ultima, future active (cf. 1 Cor 3.14). Since the accents are probably
not original, liquid verbs of this type are sometimes ambiguous, and a
careful analysis of the context is necessary to determine which tense
the verb is. I personally think MENEI in John 9.41 is present tense, but
considerations other than accent or morphology lead me in that direction.
--------------------

Steven Lo Vullo
Madison, WI


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