From: Wayne Leman (firstname.lastname@example.org)
Date: Wed Feb 20 2002 - 16:26:09 EST
First, these two verses cohere to verse 14 which precedes them. The hHN at
the beginning of your quote surely is anaphoric with the event, EPIFANEIAS
TOU KURIOU hHMWN IHSOU CRISTOU, of v. 14. Next, see below.
> The text: hHN KAIROIS IDIAS DEIXEI hO MAKARIOS KAI MONOS DUNASTHS hO
> BASILEUS TWN BASILEUONTWN KAI KURIOS TWN KURIEUONTWN hO MONOS ECWN
> AQANASIAN FWS OIKWN APROSITON hON EIDEN OUDEIS ANQRWPWN OUDE IDEIN DUNATAI
> hW TIMH KAI KRATOS AIWNION AMHN.
> Many Bible translations and commentaries have God as the referent here;
> others apply the words to Jesus. Is there a "preponderence of evidence"
> among these titles and descriptions that tip decisively in one direction
Not that I can see.
> or the other, or is it a judgment call?
It seems to be. I find no clear and convincing evidence from the Greek
itself whether the referent of vv. 15-16 is the one with which v. 14 ends or
another one. Since I personally believe that authors usually write
cohesively, on that basis alone, I would lean toward thinking that the
referent at the end of v. 14 is the same one continued to be described in
vv. 15-16. But there is no proof to support my assumption.
Bible Translation discussion list:
> Solomon Landers
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