From: Kevin Cauley (email@example.com)
Date: Sat Mar 02 2002 - 02:05:07 EST
I agree that BAPTIZONTES and DIDASKONTES is the way or means that
MAQHTEUSATE is carried out.
GRAMMATICALLY, does the BAPTIZONTES occur at the same time as the
DIDASKONTES? Or, GRAMMATICALLY, can it be said that the BAPTIZONTES occurs
1) prior to or 2) subsequent to the DIDASKONTES?
Does the action in the participle take its time from the lead verb? If they
do take their time from the lead verb, how can we GRAMMATICALLY say that one
occurs before the other?
Does that clarify my question a little?
From: lance w seevers [mailto:firstname.lastname@example.org]
Sent: Friday, March 01, 2002 11:32 PM
Cc: email@example.com; firstname.lastname@example.org
Subject: Re: [b-greek] Re: Matthew 28:19,20
I'm looking at Goodwin's Greek Grammar.(By the way, what is the general
opinion on this grammar? Is it considered any good?) In the discusson of
the circumstantial participle, he lists means or manner as one usage. Is
it too much of a stretch to say that BAPTIZONTES and DIDASKONTES is the
way or means that MAQHTEUSATE is carried out?
On Fri, 1 Mar 2002 22:44:02 -0600 "Kevin Cauley" <email@example.com>
> So the question to me is, if the action in the participles is
> with that of the main verb, does that imply that both DIDASKONTES
> BAPTIZONTES occur at the same time-GRAMMATICALLY?
> > POREUQENTES OUN MAQHTEUSATE PANTA TA EQNH BAPTIZONTES AUTOUS EIS
> > ONOMA
> > TOU PATROS KAI TOU hUIOU KAI TOU AHIOU PNEUMATOS DIDASKONTES
> > THREIN
> > PANTA OSA ENETEILAMHN hUNIN KAI IDOU EGO MEQ hUMWN EIMI PASAS TAS
> > HMERAS EWS
> > THS SUNTELEIAS
> > Question: How do the participles BAPTIZONTES and DIDASKONTES
> > to the
> > main verb MAQHTEUSATE from a strictly grammatical standpoint? No
> > theology
> > please, just grammar/syntax.
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