From: Jay Anthony Adkins (Jadkins26438@cs.com)
Date: Sat Mar 02 2002 - 09:24:04 EST
> Does the action in the participle take its time from the lead verb?
> If they do take their time from the lead verb, how can we GRAMMATICALLY
> say that one occurs before the other? Does that clarify my question
> a little?
> Thanks, Kevin Cauley
It would seam to me that there is general agreement here that the
participles in question do relate to means. To add the nuance of a time
distinction between the two may be going beyond what was intended by the
author and the original language. We, I think, can safely say both were a
processes that were to be on-going, but which was to occur first seams to
strain the language's abilities in this construction.
Maybe one of the big-Greekers will confirm this.
Always Under Grace!
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