From: Chuck Tripp (email@example.com)
Date: Sat Mar 02 2002 - 13:21:35 EST
> GRAMMATICALLY, does the BAPTIZONTES occur at the same time as the
> DIDASKONTES? Or, GRAMMATICALLY, can it be said that the BAPTIZONTES
> 1) prior to or 2) subsequent to the DIDASKONTES?
> Does the action in the participle take its time from the lead verb? If
> do take their time from the lead verb, how can we GRAMMATICALLY say that
> occurs before the other?
If I can weigh in here. I don't think the text allows one to draw any firm
conclusions beyond this: the two present participals DISASKONTES and
BAPIZONTES are component parts of the indicative verb MAQHTEUSATE, subsets
if you will. I don't think there is enough information in to say for sure
whether either participal occurs before the other. The fact that one
participal occurs before another may imply a sequence, but grammatically
speaking they may also be concurrent or as I said earlier, simply component
parts of MAQHTEUSATE with reference to the time element. There aren't any
words in the text to indicate what the time relationship might be, so the
grammatical possibilities are broad rather than narrow.
My humble opinion,
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