From: Carl W. Conrad (firstname.lastname@example.org)
Date: Wed Mar 06 2002 - 15:45:55 EST
At 10:08 AM -0800 3/6/02, D. Storm wrote:
>(I apologize for re-sending, but I did not see this get posted.)
>Thank you for the responses to EUTRAPELIA. I see that there are classical
>examples of its cognate being used in a negative sense.
>But my question remains unanswered.
>How did Bible translators come to translate EUTRAPELIA as "course" jesting.
I suspect it's not "course", but rather "coarse" jesting.
>If anything, it seems like refined jesting, albeit in a harmful way. I'm
>really asking, "Is there anything in the meaning of the word to suggest
>coarseness, lewdness or bawdiness?"
Isn't this pretty much a matter of taste? A double entendre that is clever
and amusing to some will make others frown. It is clear that the author of
Ephesians is using the word in a context indicating his judgment that it is
inappropriate conduct for believers; it might not appear in the same light
to sophisticated non-believers. I don't think there is sufficient evidence
to show that the word itself really has changed fundamentally in its
Text (Eph 5:3-4): PORNEIA DE KAI AKAQARSIA PASA H PLEONEXIA MHDE ONOMAZESQW
EN hUMIN, KAQWS PREPEI hAAGIOIS, KAI AISCROTHS KAI MWROLOGIA H EUTRAPELIA,
hA OUK ANHKEN, ALLA MALLON EUCARISTIA.
Carl W. Conrad
Department of Classics, Washington University (Emeritus)
Most months:: 1647 Grindstaff Road/Burnsville, NC 28714/(828) 675-4243
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