Word order John 7:42 what does τῆς κώμης... go with?

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Stephen Hughes
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Joined: February 26th, 2013, 7:12 am

Word order John 7:42 what does τῆς κώμης... go with?

Post by Stephen Hughes »

John 7:42 wrote:Οὐχὶ ἡ γραφὴ εἶπεν ὅτι ἐκ τοῦ σπέρματος Δαυίδ, καὶ ἀπὸ Βηθλεέμ, τῆς κώμης ὅπου ἦν Δαυίδ, ὁ χριστὸς ἔρχεται;
Which preposition does τῆς κώμης ὅπου ἦν Δαυίδ follow? Is it in apposition to ἐκ τοῦ σπέρματος Δαυίδ with καὶ ἀπὸ Βηθλεέμ being parenthetical, and hence a split (broken) prepositional phrase, or (because Βηθλεέμ is a κώμη) is it after ἀπὸ Βηθλεέμ? The second - being after ἀπὸ Βηθλεέμ - seems more logical.

Is apposition in a prepositional phrase a kind of splitting (without any actual distance)? Is it common?
Γελᾷ δ' ὁ μωρός, κἄν τι μὴ γέλοιον ᾖ
(Menander, Γνῶμαι μονόστιχοι 108)
Stephen Carlson
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Joined: May 11th, 2011, 10:51 am
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Re: Word order John 7:42 what does τῆς κώμης... go with?

Post by Stephen Carlson »

Attachment ambiguity of prepositional phrases is a notorious problem in interpretation. Usually it's best not to overthink it. Your "more logical" option is best.
Stephen C. Carlson, Ph.D.
Melbourne, Australia
Barry Hofstetter

Re: Word order John 7:42 what does τῆς κώμης... go with?

Post by Barry Hofstetter »

Has anyone ever argued that τῆς κωμῆς is not in apposition with Bethlehem? It's not only logical but the placement of the noun after Bethlehem makes it the natural way to take it.
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