Which preposition does τῆς κώμης ὅπου ἦν Δαυίδ follow? Is it in apposition to ἐκ τοῦ σπέρματος Δαυίδ with καὶ ἀπὸ Βηθλεέμ being parenthetical, and hence a split (broken) prepositional phrase, or (because Βηθλεέμ is a κώμη) is it after ἀπὸ Βηθλεέμ? The second - being after ἀπὸ Βηθλεέμ - seems more logical.John 7:42 wrote:Οὐχὶ ἡ γραφὴ εἶπεν ὅτι ἐκ τοῦ σπέρματος Δαυίδ, καὶ ἀπὸ Βηθλεέμ, τῆς κώμης ὅπου ἦν Δαυίδ, ὁ χριστὸς ἔρχεται;
Is apposition in a prepositional phrase a kind of splitting (without any actual distance)? Is it common?