This morning I was rereading the grammars, ATR, Cooper and others and discovered that Cooper §55.5.1.E doesn't exist. Just in the off chance that someone might actually want to read this I decided to correct it.
1John 2:6 ὁ λέγων ἐν αὐτῷ μένειν ὀφείλει καθὼς ἐκεῖνος περιεπάτησεν καὶ αὐτὸς [οὕτως] περιπατεῖν.Stirling Bartholomew wrote: αὐτὸς in 1Jn 2:6 is coreferential with the subject ὀφείλει and "resumptive" after an adverbial καθὼς ἐκεῖνος περιεπάτησεν (Cooper §51.5.1.E) but what about the "subject" of the infinitive? I am wondering if Culy is half-right but the case of αὐτὸς is not the issue.
Cooper §51.5.1.E where he illustrates a "resumptive" αὐτὸς after an adverbial constituent with ὥσπερ which is similar to καθὼς ἐκεῖνος περιεπάτησεν.
I made note that AT Robertson 1036ff takes exception to the notion of the infinitive having a subject where as Cooper has no problem with this manner of explaining nominal and pronomial constituents with the infinitive.