Rom. 12:1 Why is τὴν λογικὴν λατρείαν ὑμῶν acc.?

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Stephen Hughes
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Re: Rom. 12:1 Why is τὴν λογικὴν λατρείαν ὑμῶν acc.?

Post by Stephen Hughes »

Stephen Carlson wrote:
Stephen Hughes wrote:That's the Byzantine textform.
I think it would be best to label quotations from this text as such; otherwise, people (like me) might get confused when looking at their own texts and wondering if the answer is a simple typo on your part.
I see your point. The problem I think, with overly stating a preference for the Byzantine text-type, is that I will be associated with other people who have different reasons for excluding other text-types. I don't want that to happen, so I keep it under the radar, so to speak. I prefer the Byzantine text type because it is the "better" Greek. I think the autograph was in poorer Greek, so we wouldn't be distracted from the message by it's beauty, but we should learn good Greek, and discuss it.

I'm also flattered that you think I could make a typo like that. I would need to hold quite a few words in memory by sound, with a strong awareness of the grammar to make that "mistake". That's way beyond my present capabilities.
Γελᾷ δ' ὁ μωρός, κἄν τι μὴ γέλοιον ᾖ
(Menander, Γνῶμαι μονόστιχοι 108)
cwconrad
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Re: Rom. 12:1 Why is τὴν λογικὴν λατρείαν ὑμῶν acc.?

Post by cwconrad »

Stephen Hughes wrote:
Stephen Carlson wrote:
Stephen Hughes wrote:That's the Byzantine textform.
I think it would be best to label quotations from this text as such; otherwise, people (like me) might get confused when looking at their own texts and wondering if the answer is a simple typo on your part.
I see your point. The problem I think, with overly stating a preference for the Byzantine text-type, is that I will be associated with other people who have different reasons for excluding other text-types. I don't want that to happen, so I keep it under the radar, so to speak. I prefer the Byzantine text type because it is the "better" Greek. I think the autograph was in poorer Greek, so we wouldn't be distracted from the message by it's beauty, but we should learn good Greek, and discuss it.

I'm also flattered that you think I could make a typo like that. I would need to hold quite a few words in memory by sound, with a strong awareness of the grammar to make that "mistake". That's way beyond my present capabilities.
It was I, not Stephen Carlson, who suggested that you were reading the forms ending in -σθε as -σθαι; Ι was, in fact, being facetious. On the other hand, it never occurred to me that you were pointing to the Byzantine text. For my part, I don't have any problem with discussants having a preference for eclectic text or Majority text or whatever. We don't discuss text-critical preferences here, just as we don't discuss where each of us may stand on the spectrum of faith-commitment. I think it behooves us all in this forum to heed the admonition, Μὴ κρίνετε, ἵνα μὴ κριθῆτε· ἐν ᾧ γὰρ κρίματι κρίνετε κριθήσεσθε, καὶ ἐν ᾧ μέτρῳ μετρεῖτε μετρηθήσεται ὑμῖν. It does seem to me, however, that if one wants to cite the Majority text, that should be indicated.
οὔτοι ἀπ’ ἀρχῆς πάντα θεοὶ θνητοῖς ὑπέδειξαν,
ἀλλὰ χρόνῳ ζητέοντες ἐφευρίσκουσιν ἄμεινον. (Xenophanes, Fragment 16)

Carl W. Conrad
Department of Classics, Washington University (Retired)
Stephen Hughes
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Joined: February 26th, 2013, 7:12 am

Re: Rom. 12:1 Why is τὴν λογικὴν λατρείαν ὑμῶν acc.?

Post by Stephen Hughes »

cwconrad wrote:It was I, not Stephen Carlson, who suggested that you were reading the forms ending in -σθε as -σθαι; Ι was, in fact, being facetious.
I'm sorry about the mix up, I read the posts, went to do something else, then came back and replied in a rushing-oout-the-door-while-trying-to-get-my boots-on type of hurry. In such a state, and concentrating on the thoughts, I was insensible to differences in person between yourself and Dr Carlson. :oops:
Γελᾷ δ' ὁ μωρός, κἄν τι μὴ γέλοιον ᾖ
(Menander, Γνῶμαι μονόστιχοι 108)
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