Thomas Dolhanty wrote:Matthew 6:13 wrote: καὶ μὴ εἰσενέγκῃς ἡμᾶς εἰς πειρασμόν, ἀλλὰ ῥῦσαι ἡμᾶς ἀπὸ τοῦ πονηροῦ.
Daniel Wallace – Greek Grammar Beyond the Basic, pg 233 wrote: Although the KJV renders this “deliver us from evil,” the presence of the article indicates not evil in general, but the evil one himself. In the context of Matthew’s Gospel, such deliverance from the devil seems to be linked to Jesus’ temptation in 4:1-10: Because the Spirit led him into temptation by the evil one, believers now participate in his victory.
What is the weight of the argument for “the evil one” versus “evil”? Are both readings possible? Is one reading much preferred, or required as Wallace contends?
Wallace is not the originator of this assertion about the article being significant in determining whether "the evil (one)" or "evil" is to be read. I heard this same appeal to the article 30 years ago, and in ignorance and without reason accepted it as reasonable. Now however, it sounds like, "the bed is wide enough, so your feet won't overhang the end". Rather than make points, let me ask and answer some questions, so that you can more easily see where your opinions and reasoning diverge from mine.
What is ἀπό? Obviously, it is a preposition. What follows a preposition? A nominal. Does an adjective ever follow a preposition? Yes, but only when it is substantivised. How is an adjective substantivised? In one of three ways; by being with a noun, as required by context, or as required by context made clear by the addition of an article. So then, because ἀπὸ is a preposition ipso facto what follows it is a nominal.
Following from that, if the
article does not affect whether πονηροῦ is adjectival or substantive (the presence of the preposition does), what is the difference between how we would express those two English phrases in Greek?
How do we use Greek express "the evil one", referring to an individual being? We could write ὁ πονηρός. Masculine in gender agreeing with and understood διάβολος, ἄγγελος, ἄνθρωπος. How would we express "evil in general", using Greek? τὸ πονηρόν. An arthrous neuter singular of the adjective expresses the general idea of the adjective.
Look at part of the entry from LSJ
The difference between the two is not about the article it is about the gender! Walllace's statement (and that of others) sounds to me like my feet overhanging the wide bed non-sense I wrote above.
Being as the form is genitive, it is not clear whether the nominative would be ὁ πονηρός or τὸ πονηρόν. (Both of which in our phrase ἀπὸ τοῦ πονηροῦ are articulated to the preposition rather than apposed directly). In that case then, how is the choice to be made? Through appeals to arguments (like what Wallace is doing) to support one or the other.
The presence or absence of the article does not determine the gender. The presence or absence of the article does not determine whether what follows the preposition is more or less substantivised or adjectival.
Let me ask:
Is the verb ῥυεσθαι more naturally used of being "rescued" / "delivered" from individual people or general (non-specific)
things?