ὅτι καταβέβηκα ἀπὸ τοῦ οὐρανοῦ οὐχ ἵνα ⸁ποιῶ τὸ θέλημα τὸ ἐμὸν ἀλλὰ τὸ θέλημα τοῦ πέμψαντός με (NA28).
After hearing an assertion made about the aorist participle in this passage, I have spent a couple of hours tonight working through this Greek text. My question is regarding the time of the action of the aorist participle πέμψαντός in relation to the perfect indicative (main) verb καταβέβηκα.
Wondering if it's accurate to say that the action of the participle πέμψαντός is antecedent in action to that of καταβέβηκα

I have always heard that participles & infinitives are tricky little fella's - and now I am learning why
