hello i have a question 
The text says : 
οὐ γὰρ ἔχομεν ἀρχιερέα μὴ δυνάμενον συμπαθῆσαι ταῖς ἀσθενείαις ἡμῶν, πεπειρασμένον δὲ κατὰ πάντα καθ᾽ ὁμοιότητα χωρὶς ἁμαρτίας. (RGNT+, Heb 4:15)
Can this perfect tense  πεπειρασμένον to be translate has a present tense? That is.. 
Denoting something that continues to be occurring?
Thank you
			
			
									
									
						Hebrews 4:15
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				Peng Huiguo
- Posts: 93
- Joined: April 28th, 2019, 2:02 am
Re: Hebrews 4:15
The perfect tense emphasizes the end of an event. πεπειρασμένον goes with χωρὶς ἁμαρτίας to convey a sense that the ἀρχιερεύς had been tried and found pure; it shouldn't have a still-occurring sense.
			
			
									
									
						- 
				Jason Hare
- Posts: 1016
- Joined: June 2nd, 2011, 5:28 pm
- Location: Tel Aviv, Israel
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Re: Hebrews 4:15
The testing is completed and he stands proven innocent of sin.
			
			
									
									Jason A. Hare
The Hebrew Café
Tel Aviv, Israel
						The Hebrew Café
Tel Aviv, Israel
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				Barry Hofstetter
Re: Hebrews 4:15
In many cases, the perfect m/p participle is practically an adjective which describes a particular state or quality resulting from or characterized by the verbal action of the word. Tempted or tested, but the process is over.