hello i have a question
The text says :
οὐ γὰρ ἔχομεν ἀρχιερέα μὴ δυνάμενον συμπαθῆσαι ταῖς ἀσθενείαις ἡμῶν, πεπειρασμένον δὲ κατὰ πάντα καθ᾽ ὁμοιότητα χωρὶς ἁμαρτίας. (RGNT+, Heb 4:15)
Can this perfect tense πεπειρασμένον to be translate has a present tense? That is..
Denoting something that continues to be occurring?
Thank you
Hebrews 4:15
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Re: Hebrews 4:15
The perfect tense emphasizes the end of an event. πεπειρασμένον goes with χωρὶς ἁμαρτίας to convey a sense that the ἀρχιερεύς had been tried and found pure; it shouldn't have a still-occurring sense.
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Re: Hebrews 4:15
The testing is completed and he stands proven innocent of sin.
Jason A. Hare
The Hebrew Café
Tel Aviv, Israel
The Hebrew Café
Tel Aviv, Israel
Re: Hebrews 4:15
In many cases, the perfect m/p participle is practically an adjective which describes a particular state or quality resulting from or characterized by the verbal action of the word. Tempted or tested, but the process is over.