[B-Greek] 1 Cor 6:16

Doug &Val McEachern applejuice at ozemail.com.au
Mon Mar 22 17:59:46 EST 2004


Dr. Airie, thanks for your input.
I'm not sure I understand your meaning when you refer to SWMA being neutral.
Are you referring to it being neuter gender or rather just neutral in the
sense of being a generalisation with no specific or definitive action
intended?
The later is the meaning I am taking til or unless you correct me.
I do apologise for the delay in my reply, I just get caught up at times.


Doug  McEachern



----- Original Message -----
From: "Arie Dirkzwager" <dirkzwager at pandora.be>
To: "Doug &Val McEachern" <applejuice at ozemail.com.au>; "B_GREEK"
<b-greek at lists.ibiblio.org>
Sent: Wednesday, March 10, 2004 10:58 PM
Subject: Re: [B-Greek] 1 Cor 6:16


> Interesting questions.
> In your text the word SWMA is neutral. Already in verse 15 it is the body
> without further connotations.
> In quoting the OT the word SARX is used.
> In Col 1: 22 Paul uses both words without influence of the OT text: EN TWi
> SWMATI THS SARKOS. By adding SARX he expresses the view that the body of
> Christ was really a normal "fleshy" body. Probably his opponents were
early
> gnostics who despised the body. I think he uses some irony or humour
because
> the major blessing Christ gives originated EN TWi SWMATI THS SARKOS.
> So if you would like to make a difference, SARX highlights the functions
or
> the "material" of the body, whereas SWMA is more neutral.
>
> I think that the biblical notion of becoming one flesh means that after
> sexual intercourse the two persons can be seen as two parts of one body.
> Splitting them by devorce would be as absurd as splitting the body of one
> person.
> And being a part of the body of a prostitute .......
>
> Arie
>
>
>
> Dr. A. Dirkzwager
> Hoeselt, Belgium
> e-mail dirkzwager at pandora.be
>
> ----- Oorspronkelijk bericht -----
> Van: "Doug &Val McEachern" <applejuice at ozemail.com.au>
> Aan: "B_GREEK" <b-greek at lists.ibiblio.org>
> Verzonden: woensdag 10 maart 2004 10:55
> Onderwerp: [B-Greek] 1 Cor 6:16
>
>
> Greetings to all B_GREEK people, I have question which is likely not
welcome
> for discussion on this list so I hope someone will undertake to address it
> off list.
> My question is why Paul uses SWMA and SARX or SARKA in the same sentence.
> Exactly what distinction is meant by 'one body' and 'one flesh'. Certainly
> the later is God's ideal, whereas the former falls short of God's purpose.
> >From the text, is it legitimate to understand that though inferior, the
> 'one body' becomes a sort of one flesh substitute?
> One flesh by default?  Or is Paul drawing a clear contrast between the
two,
> and saying perhaps that the former becomes a person of the same substance
> and hence indistinguishable from the prostitute?   In other words
> effectively a prostitute also?   A sort of backward step of losing his
> identity instead of  a forward step of creating a new identity.  I guess
> this is a question of interpretation and so I would be appreciative of any
> Greek language based help that can be given off list.( or on list if that
is
> possible)
>
> My E-mail address is applejuice at ozemail.com.au  it would be most helpful
if
> the following E-mail address could be inserted in the cc field as well
> olszta at comcast.net
>
> Thank you very much in anticipation,
>
> Doug McEachern
>
> ---
> B-Greek home page: http://metalab.unc.edu/bgreek
> B-Greek mailing list
> B-Greek at lists.ibiblio.org
> http://lists.ibiblio.org/mailman/listinfo/b-greek
>
>






More information about the B-Greek mailing list