[B-Greek] GLWSSA
Carl W. Conrad
cwconrad at artsci.wustl.edu
Wed Mar 24 20:05:23 EST 2004
At 2:55 PM -0800 3/24/04, Mitch Larramore wrote:
>In 1 Corinthians this word appears in places where you
>would expect the English translation "language." I
>know American Indians use to refer to the "white man's
>tongue," and I guess they used tongue for languages in
>1611, but why has it not been updated to language in
>modern translations?
Mitch, I'm not sure whether you're really asking a lexicographical question
or a translation question. But this is not so simply a question that you
throw up for grabs; you really need to consult BDAG and L&N; the last
go-round that we had on the meanings of this word in 1 Cor 12-14 pretty
clearly revealed that there are two or three very distinct understandings
of the meaning of GLWSSHi LALEIN. I think that you ought to consult
standard reference works before putting a question like this. Certainly it
means "speech/talking/speaking"--but in some texts it means intelligible
human language and in others it means speech that is not intelligible to
others as such but needs an interpreter.
--
Carl W. Conrad
Department of Classics, Washington University (Emeritus)
1989 Grindstaff Road/Burnsville, NC 28714/(828) 675-4243
cwconrad at artsci.wustl.edu
WWW: http://www.ioa.com/~cwconrad/
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