[B-Greek] GLWSSA

Mitch Larramore mitchlarramore at yahoo.com
Wed Mar 24 21:03:57 EST 2004


To all:

I apologize for posting this unclear question. I was
not wanting to discuss the "gift of" GLWSSA or
anything theological. I was more just trying to
understand why modern translations still translate
GLWSSA as "tongue" when it has the general meaning of
a "language" (either of people or angels). 

Mitch Larramore


--- "Carl W. Conrad" <cwconrad at artsci.wustl.edu>
wrote:
> At 2:55 PM -0800 3/24/04, Mitch Larramore wrote:
> >In 1 Corinthians this word appears in places where
> you
> >would expect the English translation "language." I
> >know American Indians use to refer to the "white
> man's
> >tongue," and I guess they used tongue for languages
> in
> >1611, but why has it not been updated to language
> in
> >modern translations?
> 
> Mitch, I'm not sure whether you're really asking a
> lexicographical question
> or a translation question. But this is not so simply
> a question that you
> throw up for grabs; you really need to consult BDAG
> and L&N; the last
> go-round that we had on the meanings of this word in
> 1 Cor 12-14 pretty
> clearly revealed that there are two or three very
> distinct understandings
> of the meaning of GLWSSHi LALEIN. I think that you
> ought to consult
> standard reference works before putting a question
> like this. Certainly it
> means "speech/talking/speaking"--but in some texts
> it means intelligible
> human language and in others it means speech that is
> not intelligible to
> others as such but needs an interpreter.
> -- 
> 
> Carl W. Conrad
> Department of Classics, Washington University
> (Emeritus)
> 1989 Grindstaff Road/Burnsville, NC 28714/(828)
> 675-4243
> cwconrad at artsci.wustl.edu
> WWW: http://www.ioa.com/~cwconrad/


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