[B-Greek] GLWSSA

Polycarp66 at aol.com Polycarp66 at aol.com
Wed Mar 24 20:08:28 EST 2004


In a message dated 3/24/2004 5:56:35 PM Eastern Standard Time, 
mitchlarramore at yahoo.com writes:
In 1 Corinthians this word appears in places where you
would expect the English translation "language." I
know American Indians use to refer to the "white man's
tongue," and I guess they used tongue for languages in
1611, but why has it not been updated to language in
modern translations?
_________

I think you are referring to passages referring to "speaking in tongues."  
Since this phrase is a sort of technicus terminus, I don't think that "speaking 
in languages" would convey the same idea.  One might then think that he was 
referring to someone who could speak Hebrew / Aramaic, Greek, and Latin.

gfsomsel



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