[B-Greek] Mark 16:16, Acts 2:38

George F Somsel gfsomsel at yahoo.com
Thu Sep 18 03:34:52 EDT 2008


Πέτρος δὲ πρὸς αὐτούς·μετανοήσατε, [φησίν,]καὶ βαπτισθήτω ἕκαστος ὑμῶν ἐπὶ τῷ ὀνόματι Ἰησοῦ Χριστοῦ εἰς ἄφεσιν τῶν ἁμαρτιῶν ὑμῶν καὶ λήμψεσθε τὴν δωρεὰν τοῦ ἁγίου πνεύματος.
PETROS DE PROS AUTOUS, "METANOHSATE, [FHSIN,] KAI BAPTISQHTW hEKASTOS hUMWN EPI TWi ONOMATI IHSOU XRISTOU EIS AFESIN TWN hAMARTIWN hUMWN KAI LHMYESQE THN DWREAN TOU hAGIOU PNEUMATOS
.
While the Middle English and Old English did distinguish "ye" and "you" with you being plural, we do not do so today.  I would generally avoid archaisms even though it might lead to a small amount of imprecision if the context is not carefully considered. 
.
I would not agree that BAPTISQHTW is a 3rd sg [ind].  This is a 3rd person imperative which in Hebrew has been called a jussive -- "let him be" or, as Carl has noted previously, this could be understood as a middle indicating having something done rather than emphasizing the passive nature of the act, e.g. "get your hair cut."  More importantly, I would not agree that BAPTW, BAPTIZW indicates immersion.  While this may have been the original significance of the word(s), it has obviously developed beyond that.  In Mk 7.4 we encounter
.
καὶ ἀπʼ ἀγορᾶς ἐὰν μὴ βαπτίσωνται οὐκ ἐσθίουσιν, καὶ ἄλλα πολλά ἐστιν ἃ παρέλαβον κρατεῖν, βαπτισμοὺς ποτηρίων καὶ ξεστῶν καὶ χαλκίων [καὶ κλινῶν]- 
KAI AP' AGORAS EAN MH BAPTISWNTAI OUK ESQIOUSIN, KAI ALLA POLLA ESTIN hA PARELABON KRATEN, BAPTISMOUS POTHRIWN KAI CESTWN KAI XALKIWN [KAI KLINWN]
.
Note here that among the items mentioned as being "baptized" is KLINWN.  It is questionable whether this was a part of the original text; however, the argument does not depend upon it having been original.  Apparently either the original author or a later scribe though it appropriate to speak of "baptizing" couches.  The other items in the list present no problems to the concept of their being immersed though KLINWN does.  Unless we are to believe that that author or scribe conceived of having a lot of soggy couches, we must understand this to be a ritual purification (as opposed to an actual washing to remove dirt) which could be, and probably was, accomplished by sprinkling or aspergation.  In fact, another variant in this same verse would indicate the early understanding to have been such since the verb ραντισωνται > ῥαντίζω [RANTISWNTAI > hRANTIZW], which clearly indicates sprinkling, was substituted for
 βαπτίσωνται [BAPTISWNTAI].   Again, this is not an argument for the correctness of reading hRANTISWNTAI since it is clearly not original.  It is simply to be noted that the scribe thought it was an appropriate choice.
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Secondly regarding the use of βαπτίζω [BAPTIZW], Paul wrote
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 καὶ πάντες εἰς τὸν Μωϋσῆν ἐβαπτίσθησαν ἐν τῇ νεφέλῃ καὶ ἐν τῇ θαλάσσῃ 
KAI PANTES EIS TON MWUSHN EBAPTISQHSAN EN THi NEFELHi KAI EN THi QALASSHi
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Here he is clearly referencing the Exodus tradition.  There, however, in Ex 13.17 ff it does not speak of Israel as having been encompassed in the cloud but rather of the cloud going before them.  What is involved is an identification or association of one item with another -- the people being identified with Moses.
george
gfsomsel 


… search for truth, hear truth, 
learn truth, love truth, speak the truth, hold the truth, 
defend the truth till death.


- Jan Hus
_________ 



----- Original Message ----
From: brent jobe <bjobe1964 at yahoo.com>
To: b-greek at lists.ibiblio.org
Sent: Wednesday, September 17, 2008 7:24:23 PM
Subject: [B-Greek] Mark 16:16, Acts 2:38

Hello.  I am a new subscriber and only have some knowledge of Greek; I am a veterinarian by profession.  I would deeply appreciate some help with the following two passages:  Mark 16:16a and Acts 2:38.  I will go as far as I can with them, then hope that the more knowledgable contributors can take me further.  I would also be interested in any parallel Greek passages, either sacred or profane, which would further aid in understanding the New Testament Greek.

Mark 16:16a

ο - definite article, nom sing mas
πιστευσας - verb, aorist part, active, nom sing mas
και - conjunction (and)
βαπτισθεις - verb, aorist part, active, nom sing mas
σωθησεται - verb, future passive, third person, sing

So my literal translation would be:

"He who having believed and having been baptized will be saved."

Is this a correct translation?  By definition and usage, MUST the actions of the two aorists occur prior to the action of the main verb?  Is it grammatically possible that either aorist could occur subsequent to the action of the main verb?  Would it ever be possible to construe the Greek grammar to mean either, "He that believeth shall be saved, then is baptized?" or "He that is baptized shall be saved, then believe?"  And finally, are there any writings from the period which would strengthen or weaken either position?  That is as far as I can go with the verse, and appreciate, in advance, any additional insight.

As to Acts 2:38, I will not follow the same pattern; I shall only ask a few English questions which can be answered by the Greek.
1.  Is a correct translation of μετανοησατε "Ye or you repent."?  And is this second person, plural?
2.  Is a correct translation of βαπτισθητω "Be immersed."?  
3.  Is a correct translation of εκαστος υμων "Each one of you," with εκαστος being a singular masculine adjective "each" or "every" and the noun (one) being understood, implied, or supplied for clarity?
4.  Is υμων (tranlated you), a second person plural pronoun?
5.  In the original Greek, did μετανοησατε and εκαστος υμων refer to exactly the same group of people, based upon the context and normal usage of Greek at that time?  Or is Peter referring to two different groups of people?
6.  Is βαπτισθητω third person, singular?
7.  Does the phrase "εις αφεσιν αμαρτιων" - (I would translate "into or unto the forgiveness of sins") apply with equal force to (I will switch to English) "Ye repent" and "let be baptized every one of you"?  In other words, with consideration to the original Greek construction, does "into the forgiveness of sins" contingent or predicated upon both repentance and baptism?  Or does "into the forgiveness of sins" answer to only "Ye repent"?  Or does it answer to only "let be baptized every one of you."?  Or both?  The changes from masculine to feminine and singular to plural confuse me, and I do not know all the rules and variations. 

ANY help that one or more of the Greek scholars can give me - pointing out my mistakes does not bother me a bit - and I simply find great interest in similar or parallel passages from the same time period.  Thank you.

Best wishes,

Brent Jobe, DVM





      
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