[B-Greek] 1 cor 10:9 TON KURION referent?

Jeffrey B. Gibson jgibson000 at comcast.net
Sun Sep 21 21:49:31 EDT 2008


Elizabeth Kline wrote:
> On Sep 20, 2008, at 7:22 PM, James Ernest wrote:
>
>   
>>> IHSOUN is the object numerous times, but only by his personal  
>>> enemies.
>>> I can't recall seeing a passage where the disciples are warned not to
>>> (EK)PEIRAZEIN IHSOUN.
>>>       
>> No, but I wonder what verb would have been used for Peter's address to
>> Jesus if Matt 16:22 had been summarized rather than narrated with
>> direct discourse, or if it had been narrated from Jesus' point of view
>> (seems to me that EPITIMAN is what Peter thought he was doing, but
>> 16:23 switches to Jesus' point of view and says Peter's thinking was
>> backward). Maybe the same verb as in Matt 4:1 (PEIRASQHNAI hUPO TOU
>> DIABOLOU). This episode is (in part) a warning to disciples in
>> narrative form, no? This is an (EK)PEIRAZEIN IHSOUN passage although
>> that verb is lacking on the surface.
>>     
>
> James,
>
> A good point. Certainly Peter's rebuking of Jesus
>
> MATT. 16:22 KAI PROSLABOMENOS AUTON hO PETROS HRXATO EPITIMAN AUTWi  
> LEGWN: hILEWS SOI, KURIE: OU MH ESTAI SOI TOUTO.
>
> would qualify as  an (EK)PEIRAZEIN IHSOUN.
>
>   
In the FWIW department,   I argue very much along these lines in my 
chapter on Mk. 8:27-33 in my /The Temptations of Jesus in Early 
Christianity/ (Sheffield, 1995).

Jeffrey

-- 
Jeffrey B. Gibson, D.Phil. (Oxon)
1500 W. Pratt Blvd.
Chicago, Illinois
e-mail jgibson000 at comcast.net




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