[B-Greek] 1 cor 10:9 TON KURION referent?
Elizabeth Kline
kline_dekooning at earthlink.net
Sun Sep 21 14:13:30 EDT 2008
On Sep 20, 2008, at 7:22 PM, James Ernest wrote:
>>
>> IHSOUN is the object numerous times, but only by his personal
>> enemies.
>> I can't recall seeing a passage where the disciples are warned not to
>> (EK)PEIRAZEIN IHSOUN.
>
> No, but I wonder what verb would have been used for Peter's address to
> Jesus if Matt 16:22 had been summarized rather than narrated with
> direct discourse, or if it had been narrated from Jesus' point of view
> (seems to me that EPITIMAN is what Peter thought he was doing, but
> 16:23 switches to Jesus' point of view and says Peter's thinking was
> backward). Maybe the same verb as in Matt 4:1 (PEIRASQHNAI hUPO TOU
> DIABOLOU). This episode is (in part) a warning to disciples in
> narrative form, no? This is an (EK)PEIRAZEIN IHSOUN passage although
> that verb is lacking on the surface.
James,
A good point. Certainly Peter's rebuking of Jesus
MATT. 16:22 KAI PROSLABOMENOS AUTON hO PETROS HRXATO EPITIMAN AUTWi
LEGWN: hILEWS SOI, KURIE: OU MH ESTAI SOI TOUTO.
would qualify as an (EK)PEIRAZEIN IHSOUN.
Thank you,
Elizabeth Kline
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