[B-Greek] 2 Peter 1:1 EN as "by" or "in"
Nicholas Lamme
nlamme at midamerica.edu
Fri Sep 26 18:27:14 EDT 2008
Hello,
I have a question about TOIS ISOTIMOV HiMIN LAXOUSIN PISTIV EN DIKAIOSUNH... All translations that I have checked translate the preposition EN as "by" (I live in Costa Rica--the Spanish translates it por, which could be by or through...it is ambiguous in Spanish taken all by itself). Of all the instances in the NT (of which I am aware--I find six), the only place where "by" is a very viable translation of EN is Acts 17:31 and even there it doesn't read as well as "in". Hence, my question why 2 Peter 1.1 translates it "by".
Additionally, I would like to note that PISTIV and EN DIKAIOSUNH are juxtaposed, giving the impression that they are to be read to together, otherwise, could not he have included PISTIN within TOIS...LAXOUSIN? Perhaps I am reading too much into that. Any ideas? Thank you.
Nicholas Lamme
General Editor
CLIR
Guadalupe, Costa Rica
www.clir.net
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