[B-Greek] 2 Peter 1:1 EN as "by" or "in"
Elizabeth Kline
kline_dekooning at earthlink.net
Fri Sep 26 19:11:27 EDT 2008
On Sep 26, 2008, at 3:27 PM, Nicholas Lamme wrote:
> I have a question about TOIS ISOTIMOV HiMIN LAXOUSIN PISTIV EN
> DIKAIOSUNH... All translations that I have checked translate the
> preposition EN as "by" (I live in Costa Rica--the Spanish translates
> it por, which could be by or through...it is ambiguous in Spanish
> taken all by itself). Of all the instances in the NT (of which I am
> aware--I find six), the only place where "by" is a very viable
> translation of EN is Acts 17:31 and even there it doesn't read as
> well as "in". Hence, my question why 2 Peter 1.1 translates it "by".
Following Kelly and Bauckham "through the justice", I would understand
EN here as a marker of means or agency. This is not a Pauline text and
Peter's use of DIKAIOSUNH is probably more ethical than forensic.
Elizabeth Kline
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