[B-Greek] 2 Peter 1:1 EN as "by" or "in"

Elizabeth Kline kline_dekooning at earthlink.net
Fri Sep 26 19:11:27 EDT 2008


On Sep 26, 2008, at 3:27 PM, Nicholas Lamme wrote:

>  I have a question about TOIS ISOTIMOV HiMIN LAXOUSIN PISTIV EN  
> DIKAIOSUNH...  All translations that I have checked translate the  
> preposition EN as "by" (I live in Costa Rica--the Spanish translates  
> it por, which could be by or through...it is ambiguous in Spanish  
> taken all by itself).  Of all the instances in the NT (of which I am  
> aware--I find six), the only place where "by" is a very viable  
> translation of EN is Acts 17:31 and even there it doesn't read as  
> well as "in".  Hence, my question why 2 Peter 1.1 translates it "by".

Following Kelly and Bauckham "through the justice", I would understand  
EN here as a marker of means or agency. This is not a Pauline text and  
Peter's use of DIKAIOSUNH is probably more ethical than forensic.

Elizabeth Kline







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