[B-Greek] FW: 2 Peter 1:1 EN as "by" or "in"
Nicholas Lamme
nlamme at midamerica.edu
Fri Sep 26 19:43:30 EDT 2008
Elizabeth wrote:
------ Forwarded Message
From: Elizabeth Kline <kline_dekooning at earthlink.net>
Date: Fri, 26 Sep 2008 16:11:27 -0700
To: greek B-Greek <B-Greek at lists.ibiblio.org>
Subject: Re: [B-Greek] 2 Peter 1:1 EN as "by" or "in"
On Sep 26, 2008, at 3:27 PM, Nicholas Lamme wrote:
> I have a question about TOIS ISOTIMOV HiMIN LAXOUSIN PISTIV EN
> DIKAIOSUNH... All translations that I have checked translate the
> preposition EN as "by" (I live in Costa Rica--the Spanish translates
> it por, which could be by or through...it is ambiguous in Spanish
> taken all by itself). Of all the instances in the NT (of which I am
> aware--I find six), the only place where "by" is a very viable
> translation of EN is Acts 17:31 and even there it doesn't read as
> well as "in". Hence, my question why 2 Peter 1.1 translates it "by".
Following Kelly and Bauckham "through the justice", I would understand
EN here as a marker of means or agency. This is not a Pauline text and
Peter's use of DIKAIOSUNH is probably more ethical than forensic.
Elizabeth Kline
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------ End of Forwarded Message
Elizabeth,
I certainly think you are right to take into account the different
authorial styles. I know I am venturing off the strictly grammatical here,
but my overall reading of the book obviously influences my interpretations
of its parts, even these grammatical questions. I promise that the
following will have a point. My understanding of 2 Peter revolves around
the supposed antagonists of chapter 2, who appear to be incipient Gnostics,
who by their teaching have denied two principle presuppositions upon which
the Christian faith rests: 1) a personal and imminent God who is actively at
work in the lives of his people as well as in the affairs of pagan nations;
2) the historicity of the scriptural witness. Even in his first two verses,
he seems to be attacking (albeit indirectly) the very core of the
destructive teachings of the false teachers in chapter 2.
Now to the point:
2 Peter is not primarily concerned with the ethical. I think that he
labors to show how ones life flows form ones doctrine. A faulty foundation
issues forth in a weak and ultimately fallen structure. I do not think that
Peter has in mind forensic justification in the way Paul would. If he does,
he certainly does not express himself like Paul. But is it not possible
that by the DIKAIOSUNH...IHSOU CRISTOU he has in mind the whole work of God
on behalf of his people? Thus, their faith is of equal value or like
preciousness because the faith of the Apostle and the faith of the reader
share the same object. By this reading, DIKAIOSUNH is a synecdoche for the
whole work of Jesus Christ.
I hope that I have been clear about my thought process. If EN is in
fact a marker of means or agency, and the thrust is primarily ethical, then
what does he mean by the "justice" of our God and Savior Jesus Christ? And
how does the justice of God issue forth in faith? In other words, how have
these believers come to obtain faith "by means of" God's justice? It seems
hard to square this with the overall teaching of the NT. I'd appreciate any
thoughts or critique of my process if I seem to be failing at some point.
Thanks.
Nicholas Lamme
CLIR
Guadalupe, Costa Rica
www.clir.net
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