[B-Greek] 1Cor. 15:50 SARX KAI hAIMA, 1 Jn 4:2 SARKI
Carl Conrad
cwconrad2 at mac.com
Fri Mar 12 10:56:45 EST 2010
On Mar 12, 2010, at 10:41 AM, Elizabeth Kline wrote:
>
> 1Cor. 15:50 Τοῦτο δέ φημι, ἀδελφοί, ὅτι σὰρξ καὶ αἷμα βασιλείαν θεοῦ κληρονομῆσαι οὐ δύναται οὐδὲ ἡ φθορὰ τὴν ἀφθαρσίαν κληρονομεῖ.
>
> 1Cor. 15:50 TOUTO DE FHMI, ADELFOI, hOTI SARX KAI hAIMA BASILEIAN QEOU KLHRONOMHSAI OU DUNATAI OUDE hH FQORA THN AFQARSIAN KLHRONOMEI.
>
> 1John 4:2 ἐν τούτῳ γινώσκετε τὸ πνεῦμα τοῦ θεοῦ· πᾶν πνεῦμα ὃ ὁμολογεῖ Ἰησοῦν Χριστὸν ἐν σαρκὶ ἐληλυθότα ἐκ τοῦ θεοῦ ἐστιν,
>
> 1John 4:2 EN TOUTWi GINWSKETE TO PNEUMA TOU QEOU· PAN PNEUMA hO hOMOLOGEI IHSOUN CRISTON EN SARKI ELHLUQOTA EK TOU QEOU ESTIN,
>
> Does SARX KAI hAIMA in 1Cor. 15:50 and SARKI in 1John 4:2 mean the same thing?
I see no reason to think so. SARX is a positive term in Johannine usage, so far as I can see, whereas Paul's use of it seems to focus upon the limiting, negative aspects of SARX as dominated somehow by sin. BDAG x.v. SARX, 2.c.α. Although it is old and some might think it suspect, I always thought that one of the best parts of Bultmann's _Theology of the New Testament_ was his chapter on "Pauline Anthropology." I think, moreover, that it is somewhat perilous to assume that two so different authors are using this word in exactly the same sense.
Carl W. Conrad
Department of Classics, Washington University (Retired)
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